[Free] Download New Updated (October 2016) ECCouncil 312-38 Real Exam 91-100

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QUESTION 91

Which of the following types of cyberstalking damages the reputation of their victim and turns other people against them by setting up their own Websites, blogs, or user pages for this purpose?

 

A.

False accusation

B.

Attempts to gather information about the victim

C.

Encouraging others to harass the victim

D.

False victimization

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

In false accusations, many cyberstalkers try to damage the reputation of their victim and turn other people against them. They post false information about them on Websites. They may set up their own Websites, blogs, or user pages for this purpose. They post allegations about the victim to newsgroups, chat rooms, or other sites that allow public contributions.

Answer option D is incorrect. In false victimization, the cyberstalker claims that the victim is harassing him/her.

Answer option C is incorrect. In this type of cyberstalking, many cyberstalkers try to involve third parties in the harassment. They claim that the victim has harmed the stalker in some way, or may post the victim’s name and telephone number in order to encourage others to join the pursuit.

Answer option B is incorrect. In an attempt to gather information, cyberstalkers may approach their victim’s friends, family, and work colleagues to obtain personal information. They may advertise for information on the Internet. They often will monitor the victim’s online activities and attempt to trace their IP address in an effort to gather more information about their victims.

 

 

QUESTION 92

Which of the following IP class addresses are not allotted to hosts?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

 

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class D

D.

Class E

E.

Class C

 

Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:

Class addresses D and E are not allotted to hosts. Class D addresses are reserved for multicasting, and their address range can extend from 224 to 239. Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes. Their addresses range from 240 to 254.

Answer option A is incorrect. Class A addresses are specified for large networks. It consists of up to 16,777,214 client devices (hosts), and their address range can extend from 1 to 126.

Answer option B is incorrect. Class B addresses are specified for medium size networks. It consists of up to 65,534 client devices, and their address range can extend from 128 to 191.

Answer option E is incorrect. Class C addresses are specified for small local area networks (LANs). It consists of up to 245 client devices, and their address range can extend from 192 to 223.

 

QUESTION 93

Which of the following is a management process that provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders?

 

A.

Log analysis

B.

Incident handling

C.

Business Continuity Management

D.

Patch management

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Business Continuity Management is a management process that determines potential impacts that are likely to threaten an organization. It provides a framework for promoting quick recovery and the capability for an effective response to protect the interests of its brand, reputation, and stakeholders. Business continuity management includes disaster recovery, business recovery, crisis management, incident management, emergency management, product recall, contingency planning, etc.

Answer option D is incorrect. Patch management is an area of systems management that involves acquiring, testing, and installing multiple patches (code changes) to an administered computer system. Patch management includes the following tasks:

Maintaining current knowledge of available patches

Deciding what patches are appropriate for particular systems Ensuring that patches are installed properly

Testing systems after installation, and documenting all associated procedures, such as specific configurations requiredA number of products are available to automate patch management tasks, including RingMaster’s Automated Patch Management, PatchLink Update, and Gibraltar’s Everguard.

Answer option A is incorrect. This option is invalid.

Answer option B is incorrect. Incident handling is the process of managing incidents in an Enterprise, Business, or an Organization. It involves the thinking of the prospective suitable to the enterprise and then the implementation of the prospective in a clean and manageable manner. It involves completing the incident report and presenting the conclusion to the management and providing ways to improve the process both from a technical and administrative aspect. Incident handling ensures that the overall process of an enterprise runs in an uninterrupted continuity.

 

 

QUESTION 94

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. In the ______________method, a device or computer that transmits data needs to first listen to the channel for an amount of time to check for any activity on the channel.

 

Correct Answer:

Explanation:

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is an access method used by wireless networks (IEEE 802.11). In this method, a device or computer that transmits data needs to first listen to the channel for an amount of time to check for any activity on the channel. If the channel is sensed as idle, the device is allowed to transmit data. If the channel is busy, the device postpones its transmission. Once the channel is clear, the device sends a signal telling all other devices not to transmit data, and then sends its packets. In Ethernet (IEEE 802.3) networks that use CSMA/CD, the device or computer continues to wait for a time and checks if the channel is still free. If the channel is free, the device transmits packets and waits for an acknowledgment signal indicating that the packets were received.

 

 

QUESTION 95

Which of the following organizations is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses?

 

A.

ISO

B.

ICANN

C.

W3C

D.

ANSI

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

ICANN stands for Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers. ICANN is responsible for managing the assignment of domain names and IP addresses. ICANN’s tasks include responsibility for IP address space allocation, protocol identifier assignment, top-level domain name system management, and root server system management functions.

Answer option A is incorrect. The International Organization for Standardization, widely known as ISO, is an international-standard-setting body composed of representatives from various national standards organizations. Founded on 23 February 1947, the organization promulgates worldwide proprietary industrial and commercial standards. It has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland. While ISO defines itself as a non-governmental organization, its ability to set standards that often become law, either through treaties or national standards, makes it more powerful than most non- governmental organizations. In practice, ISO acts as a consortium with strong links to governments.

Answer option C is incorrect. The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) is an international industry consortium that develops common standards for the World Wide Web to promote its evolution and interoperability. It was founded in October 1994 by Tim Berners-Lee, the inventor of the Web, at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Laboratory for Computer Science [MIT/LCS] in collaboration with CERN, where the Web had originated , with support from DARPA and the European Commission.

Answer option D is incorrect. ANSI (American National Standards Institute) is the primary organization for fostering the development of technology standards in the United States. ANSI works with industry groups and is the U.S. member of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the International Electro-technical Commission (IEC). Long-established computer standards from ANSI include the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and the Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).

 

 

QUESTION 96

Which of the following recovery plans includes specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular security problem, emergency, or state of
affairs?

 

A.

Contingency plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Continuity of Operations Plan

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A contingency plan is a plan devised for a specific situation when things could go wrong. Contingency plans are often devised by governments or businesses who want to be prepared for anything that could happen. Contingency plans include specific strategies and actions to deal with specific variances to assumptions resulting in a particular problem, emergency, or state of affairs. They also include a monitoring process and “triggers” for initiating planned actions. They are required to help governments, businesses, or individuals to recover from serious incidents in the minimum time with minimum cost and disruption.

Answer option D is incorrect. It includes the plans and procedures documented that ensure the continuity of critical operations during any period where normal operations are impossible.

Answer option B is incorrect. Disaster recovery planning is a subset of a larger process known as business continuity planning and should include planning for resumption of applications, data, hardware, communications (such as networking), and other IT infrastructure. A business continuity plan (BCP) includes planning for non-IT related aspects such as key personnel, facilities, crisis communication, and reputation protection, and should refer to the disaster recovery plan (DRP) for IT-related infrastructure recovery/continuity.

Answer option C is incorrect. Business continuity planning (BCP) is the creation and validation of a practiced logistical plan for how an organization will recover and restore partially or completely interrupted critical (urgent) functions within a predetermined time after a disaster or extended disruption. The logistical plan is called a business continuity plan. The BCP lifecycle is as follows:

 

clip_image002

 

 

QUESTION 97

Which of the following examines network traffic to identify threats that generate unusual traffic flows, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, certain forms of malware, and policy violations?

 

A.

Network Behavior Analysis

B.

Network-based Intrusion Prevention

C.

Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

D.

Host-based Intrusion Prevention

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Network Behavior Analysis examines network traffic to identify threats that generate unusual traffic flows, such as distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, certain forms of malware, and policy violations.

Answer option B is incorrect. Network-based Intrusion Prevention (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.

Answer option C is incorrect. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) monitors a wireless network for suspicious traffic by analyzing wireless networking protocols.

Answer option D is incorrect. Host-based Intrusion Prevention (HIPS) is an installed software package that monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.

QUESTION 98

Which of the following routing metrics refers to the length of time that is required to move a packet from source to destination through the internetwork?

 

A.

Routing delay

B.

Bandwidth

C.

Load

D.

Path length

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Routing delay refers to the length of time that is required to move a packet from source to destination through the internetwork. Delay depends on many factors, including the following:

 

clip_image004Bandwidth of intermediate network links

clip_image004[1]Port queues at each router along the way

clip_image004[2]Network congestion on all intermediate network links

clip_image004[3]Physical distance to be traveled

 

Since delay is a conglomeration of several important variables, it is a common and useful metric.

Answer option D is incorrect. Path length is defined as the sum of the costs associated with each link traversed.

Answer option B is incorrect. Bandwidth refers to the available traffic capacity of a link.

Answer option C is incorrect. Load refers to the degree to which a network resource, such as a router, is busy.

 

 

QUESTION 99

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The ______________model is a description framework for computer network protocols and is sometimes called the Internet Model or the DoD Model.

 

Correct Answer: TCP/IP

Explanation:

The TCP/IP model is a description framework for computer network protocols. It describes a set of general design guidelines and implementations of specific networking protocols to enable computers to communicate over a network. TCP/IP provides end-to-end connectivity specifying how data should be formatted, addressed, transmitted, routed and received at the destination. Protocols exist for a variety of different types of communication services between computers. The TCP/IP Model is sometimes called the Internet Model or the DoD Model. The TCP/IP model has four unique layers as shown in the image. This layer architecture is often compared with the seven-layer OSI Reference Model. The TCP/IP model and related protocols are maintained by the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

 

clip_image006

 

 

 

QUESTION 100

Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A ______________is a block of data that a Web server stores on the client computer.

 

Correct Answer: cookie

Explanation:

Cookie is a block of data, which a Web server stores on the client computer. If no expiration date is set for the cookie, it expires when the browser closes. If the expiration date is set for a future date, the cookie will be stored on the client’s disk after the session ends. If the expiration date is set for a past date, the cookie is deleted.

 

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