[Free] New Updated (October) ISC SSCP Real Exam 541-550

Ensurepass

 

QUESTION 541

Which of the following statements do not apply to a hot site?

 

A.

It is expensive.

B.

There are cases of common overselling of processing capabilities by the service provider.

C.

It provides a false sense of security.

D.

It is accessible on a first come first serve basis. In case of large disaster it might not be accessible.

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Remember this is a NOT question. Hot sites do not provide a false sense of security since they are the best disaster recovery alternate for backup site that you rent.

 

A Cold, Warm, and Hot site is always a rental place in the context of the CBK. This is definivily the best choices out of the rental options that exists. It is fully configured and can be activated in a very short period of time.

 

Cold and Warm sites, not hot sites, provide a false sense of security because you can never fully test your plan.

 

In reality, using a cold site will most likely make effective recovery impossible or could lead to business closure if it takes more than two weeks for recovery.

 

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L.& VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 284).

 

 

QUESTION 542

Of the following, which is NOT a specific loss criteria that should be considered while developing a BIA?

 

A.

Loss of skilled workers knowledge

B.

Loss in revenue

C.

Loss in profits

D.

Loss in reputation

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Although a loss of skilled workers knowledge would cause the company a great loss, it is not identified as a specific loss criteria. It would fall under one of the three other criteria listed as distracters.

Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 598).

 

 

QUESTION 543

What assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster?

 

A.

The Business Assessment (BA)

B.

The Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

C.

The Risk Assessment (RA)

D.

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Business Assessment is divided into two components. Risk Assessment (RA) and Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Risk Assessment is designed to evaluate existing exposures from the organization’s environment, whereas the BIA assesses potential loss that could be caused by a disaster. The Business Continuity Plan’s goal is to reduce the risk of financial loss by improving the ability to recover and restore operations efficiently and effectively.

 

Source: BARNES, James C.& ROTHSTEIN, Philip J., A Guide to Business Continuity Planning, John Wiley & Sons, 2001 (page 57).

And: KRUTZ, Ronald L.& VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 8: Business Continuity Planning and Disaster Recovery Planning (page 276).

 

 

QUESTION 544

What is the PRIMARY goal of incident handling?

 

A.

Successfully retrieve all evidence that can be used to prosecute

B.

Improve the company’s ability to be prepared for threats and disasters

C.

Improve the company’s disaster recovery plan

D.

Contain and repair any damage caused by an event.

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

This is the PRIMARY goal of an incident handling process.

 

The other answers are incorrect because:

 

Successfully retrieve all evidence that can be used to prosecute is more often used in identifying weaknesses than in prosecuting.

 

Improve the company’s ability to be prepared for threats and disasters is more appropriate for a disaster recovery plan.

 

Improve the company’s disaster recovery plan is also more appropriate for disaster recovery plan.

 

Reference:

Shon Harris AIO v3 , Chapter – 10 : Law, Investigation, and Ethics , Page: 727-728

 

 

QUESTION 545

Which disaster recovery plan test involves functional representatives meeting to review the plan in detail?

 

A.

Simulation test

B.

Checklist test

C.

Parallel test

D.

Structured walk-through test

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Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The structured walk-through test occurs when the functional representatives meet to review the plan in detail. This involves a thorough look at each of the plan steps, and the procedures that are invoked at that point in the plan. This ensures that the actual planned activities are accurately described in the plan. The checklist test is a method of testing the plan by distributing copies to each of the functional areas. The simulation test plays out different scenarios. The parallel test is essentially an operational test that is performed without interrupting current processing.

Source: HARE, Chris, CISSP Study Guide: Business Continuity Planning Domain,

 

 

QUESTION 546

Which backup type run at regular intervals would take the least time to complete?

 

A.

Full Backup

B.

Differential Backup

C.

Incremental Backup

D.

Disk Mirroring

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Incremental backups only backup changed data (changes archive bit to not backup again if not changed).

 

Although the incremental backup is fastest to backup, it is usually more time consuming for the restore process.

 

In some cases, the window available for backup may not be long enough to backup all the data on the system during each backup. In that case, differential or incremental backups may be more appropriate.

 

In an incremental backup, only the files that changed since the last backup will be backed up.

 

In a differential backup, only the files that changed since the last full backup will be backed up.

In general, differentials require more space than incremental backups while incremental backups are faster to perform. On the other hand, restoring data from incremental backups requires more time than differential backups. To restore from incremental backups, the last full backup and all of the incremental backups performed are combined. In contrast, restoring from a differential backup requires only the last full backup and the latest differential.

 

The following are incorrect answers:

 

Differential backups backup all data since the last full backup (does not reset archive bit) Full backups backup all selected data, regardless of archive bit, and resets the archive bit.

Disk mirroring is not considered as a backup type.

 

Reference(s) used for this question:

Hernandez CISSP, Steven (2012-12-21). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK, Third Edition ((ISC)2 Press) (Kindle Locations 20385-20390). Auerbach Publications. Kindle Edition.

And HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 618).

 

 

 

 

QUESTION 547

Which of the following is NOT a correct notation for an IPv6 address?

 

A.

2001:0db8:0:0:0:0:1428:57ab

B.

ABCD:EF01:2345:6789:ABCD:EF01:2345:6789

C.

::1

D.

2001:DB8::8:800::417A

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

This is not a correct notation for an IPv6 address because the the “::” can only appear once in an address. The use of “::” is a shortcut notation that indicates one or more groups of 16 bits of zeros.

1 is the loopback address using the special notation

Reference:

IP Version 6 Addressing Architecture

http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc4291#section-2.1

 

 

QUESTION 548

Within the realm of IT security, which of the following combinations best defines risk?

 

A.

Threat coupled with a breach

B.

Threat coupled with a vulnerability

C.

Vulnerability coupled with an attack

D.

Threat coupled with a breach of security

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Correct Answer: Threat coupled with a vulnerability. Threats are circumstances or actions with the ability to harm a system. They can destroy or modify data or result an a DoS. Threats by themselves are not acted upon unless there is a vulnerability that can be taken advantage of. Risk enters the equation when a vulnerability (Flaw or weakness) exists in policies, procedures, personnel management, hardware, software or facilities and can be exploited by a threat agent. Vulnerabilities do not cause harm, but they leave the system open to harm. The combination of a threat with a vulnerability increases the risk to the system of an intrusion.

 

The following answers are incorrect:

 

Threat coupled with a breach. A threat is the potential that a particular threat-source will take advantage of a vulnerability. Breaches get around security. It does not matter if a breach is discovered or not, it has still occured and is not a risk of something occuring. A breach would quite often be termed as an incident or intrusion.

 

Vulnerability coupled with an attack. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses (flaws) in policies, procedures, personnel management, hardware, software or factilities that may result in a harmful intrusion to an IT system. An attack takes advantage of the flaw or vulnerability. Attacks are explicit attempts to violate security, and are more than risk as they are active.

 

Threat coupled with a breach of security. This is a detractor. Although a threat agent may take advantage of (Breach) vulnerabilities or flaws in systems security. A threat coupled with a breach of security is more than a risk as this is active.

 

The following reference(s) may be
used to research the QUESTION NO: s in this question:

 

ISC2 OIG, 2007 p. 66-67

Shon Harris AIO v3 p. 71-72

 

 

QUESTION 549

Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is commonly employed in:

 

A.

very large data retrieval systems

B.

very small data retrieval systems

C.

shorter data retrieval systems

D.

most data retrieval systems

 

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Hierarchical Storage Management (HSM) is commonly employed in very large data retrieval systems.

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L.& VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 71.

 

 

QUESTION 550

What is electronic vaulting?

 

A.

Information is backed up to tape on a hourly basis and is stored in a on-site vault.

B.

Information is backed up to tape on a daily basis and is stored in a on-site vault.

C.

Transferring electronic journals or transaction logs to an off-site storage facility

D.

A transfer of bulk information to a remote central backup facility.

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Electronic vaulting is defined as “a method of transferring bulk information to off-site facilities for backup purposes”. Remote Journaling is the same concept as electronic vaulting, but has to do with journals and transaction logs, not the actual files.

Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 619).

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