Get all latest (August) EMC E20-390 Actual Test 21-30

Ensurepass

 

QUESTION 21

Which network interface(s) is assigned to the default CIFS server?

 

A.

None, by default, no interfaces are assigned to the default CIFS server

B.

The first available, unused network interface

C.

The default network interface

D.

All unused network interfaces

 

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The final step is to select an interface. If no interface is specified, the associated CIFS server uses all unassigned interfaces on that Data Mover. This configuration is known as the default CIFS server.

 

 

QUESTION 22

What does the acronym “CHAP” refer to?

 

A.

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol

B.

Challenge Handshake Authorization Protocol

C.

CLARiiON Handshake Authentication

D.

Consistent Host Application Protocol

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 23

What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for Block?

 

A.

8

B.

4

C.

16

D.

32

 

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

For all Linux environments, EMC supports up to 16 Fibre Channel initiator ports on a single host. The host initiators may be single or dual channel HBAs.

 

 

QUESTION 24

Which Unisphere storage domain role will limit a user to the administration of the system checkpoints, LUN mirrors, and Replication Manager tasks?

 

A.

NAS administrator

B.

Data protection

C.

Administrator

D.

Data recovery

 

Correct Answer: D

 

 

QUESTION 25

At which RAID level are FAST Cache drives configured for VNX arrays?

 

A.

RAID 0

B.

RAID 1

C.

RAID 3

D.

RAID 5

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The FAST Cache consists of one or more pairs of mirrored disks (RAID 1) and provides both read and write caching. For a read caching, the FAST Cache copies data off the disks being accessed into the FAST Cache.

For protected-write applications, the FAST Cache effectively buffers the data waiting to be written to disk.

 

 

QUESTION 26

Which RecoverPoint configuration details can be presented in reported format when using Data Protection Advisor?

 

A.

Replication lag

B.

Link state change

C.

RPA configuration changes

D.

Replication sets

 

Correct Answer: A

 

 

QUESTION 27

What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?

 

A.

1: 1

B.

2: 1

C.

4: 1

D.

8: 1

 

Correct Answer: C

 

 

QUESTION 28

What is the CLI command to enable Access Logix?

 

A.

naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -on

B.

naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable

C.

naviseccli -h <SP_name> accesslogix -enable

D.

naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -on

 

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The CLI equivalent is the command “naviseccli -h <SP_name> storagegroup -enable”. Once enabled, Access Logix can be disabled only via the CLI command “naviseccli -h <SP_name> sc_off “

 

 

QUESTION 29

Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS?

 

A.

CentOS

B.

RedHat

C.

Fedora

D.

Debian

 

Correct Answer: B

 

 

QUESTION 30

What are the available Usermapper roles?

 

A.

Local, Remote, and Client

< span lang="EN-US" style="font-family: ; mso-font-kerning: 0pt; mso-no-proof: yes">B.

Primary, Secondary, and Client

C.

Primary, Local, and Remote

D.

Active, Passive, and Standby

 

Correct Answer: B

 

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